Sarat Chandra IAS Academy

UPSC CSE (Civil Services Examination) Preliminary (Prelims) - 2022 Detailed explanation( Answer Key with solutions)

The UPSC has released a total of 1011 vacancies this year. UPSC conducted Civil Services Preliminary Examination on 5th June 2022. The official key will be released by UPSC soon. To help the candidates in calculating their tentative score and check their chances of clearing UPSC Prelims Result 2022, we at Sarat Chandra IAS Academy with the help of our expert faculty prepared this key.

Detailed Explanation of UPSC Civils Prelims 2022 Paper-1 by Sarat sir

The following is the Key for Set B

1. “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a
(a) Database created by coalition of research organizations
(b) Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change”
(c) Committee under “United Nations ‘Framework Convention on Climate Change”
(d) Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The Climate Action Tracker (CAT) is an independent scientific analysis produced by two research organisations tracking climate action since 2009. We track progress towards the globally agreed aim of holding warming well below 2°C, and pursuing efforts to limit warming to 1.5°C

2. Consider the following statements:
1. “The Climate Group” is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them.
2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”.
3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals.
4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100.
5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:

The Climate Group is a non-profit organisation that works with business and government leaders around the world to address climate change. The group has programmes focussing on renewable energy and reducing greenhouse gas emissions. Launched in 2004, the organisation operates globally with offices in the UK (headquarters), the United States and India. EP100 is a global corporate energy efficiency initiative bringing together over 120 ambitious businesses committed to measuring and reporting on efficiency improvement. Indian companies are part of EP 100

3. “If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.’ Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement?
(a) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation.
(b) Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds. reptiles and mammals thrive.
(c) Wetlands play a vital role in a maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization.
(d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Like kidneys, wetlands putify the waste. Natural wetlands have often been referred to as “earth’s kidneys” because of their aquatic plants which have high and long-term capacity to filter pollutants from the water that flows through them.

4. in the context of WHO Aix Quality guidelines, consider the following statements:
1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 µg/m3 and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m3.
2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather.
3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream.
4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.
Which of the statements given above correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer: A/B
Explanation:
PM2.5 is that the annual average should not exceed 15 micrograms per cubic metre in a day and annual mean 5 micrograms per meter cube. Historical monitoring data indicates that unhealthy ozone concentrations are extremely rare during fall and winter months due to beneficial weather conditions and the lower sun angle that typically keeps ozone concentrations lower than in spring and summer months

5. With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements:
1. It is a fungus.
2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas.
3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Guchhi mushroom is a species of fungus in the family Morchellaceae of the Ascomycota
They are pale yellow in color with large pits and ridges on the surface of the cap, raised on a large white stem.
It is primarily obtained from the forests and pastures of Doda district and it is also found in the high altitude areas of Kupwara, Pahalgam, Shopian, Kishtwar and Poonch of Jammu & Kashmir.

6. With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so wide spread in our daily lives, consider the following statements
1. The fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties
2. Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage
3. Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products.
4. Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
PET is short for polyethylene terephthalate, the chemical name for polyester.
PET is a clear, strong, and lightweight plastic that is widely used for packaging foods and beverages, especially convenience-sized soft drinks, juices and water.
It is also popular for packaging salad dressings, peanut butter, cooking oils, mouthwash, shampoo, liquid hand soap, window cleaner, even. The incineration offers certain complications such as the generation of toxic gases along with the residue ash which has the lead and also cadmium.

7. Which of the following is not a bird?
(a) Golden Mahseer
(b) Indian Nightjar
(c) Spoonbill
(d) White Ibis
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Mahseer is also known as tiger among fish since it is approximately interpreted as mahi – meaning fish and shir – meaning tiger.
The mahseer is frequently compared to the tiger because of its fierce fight back.
It is a huge cyprinid regarded as the hardest freshwater sport fish.

8. Which of the following are nitrogen fixing plants?
1. Alfalfa
2. Amaranth
3. Chickpea
4. Clover
5. Purslane (Kulfa)
6. Spinach
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 3, 6 and 6 only
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Plants that contribute to nitrogen fixation include the legume family – Fabaceae – with taxa such as clover, soybeans, alfalfa, lupins, peanuts, and rooibos; Chickpeas, soybean, cowpea, winter pea

9. “Biorock technology”‘ is talked about in which one of the following situations?
(a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs
(b) Development of building materials using plant residues
(c) Identification of areas for exploration/extraction of shale gas
(d) Providing salt licks for wild animal in forest/protected areas

Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI), with help from Gujarat’s forest department, is attempting for the first time a process to restore coral reefs using Biorock
Mineral Accretion Technology Also called ‘Biorock Technology’, it is a method that applies safe, low voltage electrical currents through seawater, causing dissolved minerals to crystallize on structures, growing into a white limestone (CaCo3) similar to that which naturally makes up coral reefs and tropical white sand beaches.

10. The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the
(a) Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas
(b) Development of gardens using genetically modified flora
(c) Creation of mini forests in urban areas
(d) Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Miyawaki is a technique pioneered by Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki, that helps build dense, native forests. The approach is supposed to ensure that plant growth is 10 times faster and the resulting plantation is 30 times denser than usual for urban areas it is helpful

11. Consider the following
1. Aarogya Setu .
2. CoW1N
3. DigiLocker
4. DIKSHA
Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
DIKSHA (Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing) is a national platform for school education, an initiative of National Council for Education Research and Training (NCERT), Ministry of Education. DIKSHA was developed based on the core principles of open architecture, open access, open licensing diversity, choice and autonomy as outlined in the Strategy and Approach Paper for the National Teacher Platform released by the former Hon’ Minister for Human Resources Development Shri Prakash Javdekar in May, 2017.,
DigiLocker is an initiative by the government to offer Indian citizens a free platform to store and access important documents. The platform uses several open source technologies to deliver a mass solution and contributes back to the ever-growing community.
On 2nd April 2020, India launched Aarogya Setu mobile App for helping augment the efforts of limiting the spread of COVID19, with an objective of enabling Bluetooth based contact tracing, mapping of likely hotspots and dissemination of relevant information about COVID19. The App has over 114 million users as on 26th May, which is more than any other Contact Tracing App in the world. The App is available in 12 languages and on Android, iOS and KaiOS platforms. Citizens across the country are using Aarogya Setu to protect themselves, their loved ones and the nation. Many youngsters also call Setu as their Bodyguard. Setu have been transparency, privacy and security and in line with India’s policy on Open Source Software, the source code of Aarogya Setu has now been made open source. The source code for the Android version of the application is available for review and collaboration at https://github.com/nic-delhi/AarogyaSetu_Android.git.The iOS version of the application will be released as open source within the next two weeks and the server code will be released subsequently. Almost 98% of Aarogya Setu Users are on Android platform.
The CoWin platform is being made open source and it will be available to any and all countries, Prime Minister Modi said, addressing the CoWin Global Conclave here on Monday.

12. With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements :
1. Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data.
2. In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain based social networks.
3. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The term Web 3.0, coined by reporter John Markoff of The New York Times in 2006, refers to a new evolution of the Web which includes specific innovations and practices. Below are eight main features that can help us define Web 3.0:
Semantic Web: The next evolution of the Web involves the Semantic Web. The Semantic Web improves the abilities of web technologies to generate, share and connect content through search and analysis by understanding the meaning of words rather than by keywords or numbers.
Artificial Intelligence: By combining semantic capabilities with natural language processing, computers can understand information on a human-like level to provide faster and more relevant results. In doing so, they become more intelligent and better satisfy the needs of users.
3D Graphics: Three-dimensional design is used extensively in websites and services in Web 3.0. Museum guides, computer games, eCommerce, geospatial contexts and more are all common examples of this.
Connectivity: With Web 3.0, information is more connected thanks to semantic metadata. As a result, the user experience evolves into a new level of connectivity that leverages all available information.
Ubiquity: Internet content and services can be accessed anywhere at any time via any number of devices, rather than exclusively via computers and smartphones. Web 2.0 is already ubiquitous in many ways, but the growth of IoT devices will take it to new levels.
Blockchain: With blockchain technology, user data is protected and encrypted. This prevents large companies from controlling and/or using users’ personal data for their gain.
Decentralized: Decentralized data networks store data within a peer-to-peer interconnection. Users maintain ownership over their data and digital assets and are able to log in securely over the internet without being tracked.
Edge Computing: Web 3.0 relies on the advance of edge computing in which apps and data are processed at the network edge on devices such as mobile phones, laptops, appliances, sensors and even smart cars.

13. With reference to “Software a Service(SaaS)”, consider the following statements
1. SaaS buyers can customize the user interface and can change data fields.
2. SaaS users can access their data through their mobile devices.
3. Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo, Mail are forms of SaaS.
Which of the ‘statements given above are correct
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
• Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) is a software licensing model. It allows access to software on a subscription basis using external servers.
• Major disadvantages of SaaS consist of security risks, slower speed, lack of customization and lack of control

14. Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media
a) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space.
(b) A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions.
(c) A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
(d) A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface.
Correct Answer: C

15. which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned ?
(a) Cloud Services
(b) Quantum Computing
(c) Visible Light Communication Technologies
(d) Wireless Communication Technologies
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
A qubit uses the quantum mechanical phenomena of superposition to achieve a linear combination of two states. A classical binary bit can only represent a single binary value, such as 0 or 1, meaning that it can only be in one of two possible states. A qubit, however, can represent a 0, a 1, or any proportion of 0 and 1 in superposition of both states, with a certain probability of being a 0 and a certain probability of being a 1.

16. Consider the following communication technologies:
1. Closed-circuit Television
2. Radio Frequency Identification
3. Wireless Local Area Network
Which of the above are considered Short-Range devices/technologies ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: D

17. Consider the following statements:
1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues.
2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces.
3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) )1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
A biofilm may also be considered a hydrogel, which is a complex polymer that contains many times its dry weight in water. Biofilms are not just bacterial slime layers but biological systems; the bacteria organize themselves into a coordinated functional community. Biofilms can attach to a surface such as a tooth or rock, and may include a single species or a diverse group of microorganisms. Subpopulations of cells within the biofilm differentiate to perform various activities for motility, matrix production, and sporulation, supporting the overall success of the biofilm. The biofilm bacteria can share nutrients and are sheltered from harmful factors in the environment, such as desiccation, antibiotics, and a host body’s immune system. A biofilm usually begins to form when a free-swimming bacterium attaches to a surface.

18. Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics:
1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast
2. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut.
3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) 2 only
(c) I and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Probiotics are a combination of live beneficial bacteria and/or yeasts that naturally live in your body. Bacteria is usually viewed in a negative light as something that makes you sick. However, you have two kinds of bacteria constantly in and on your body — good bacteria and bad bacteria. Probiotics are made up of good bacteria that helps keep your body healthy and working well. This good bacteria helps you in many ways, including fighting off bad bacteria when you have too much of it, helping you feel better.
Probiotics are part of a larger picture concerning bacteria and your body — your microbiome. Think of a microbiome as a diverse community of organisms, such as a forest, that work together to keep your body healthy. This community is made up of things called microbes. You have trillions of microbes on and in your body. These microbes are a combination of:
• Bacteria.
• Fungi (including yeasts).
• Viruses.
• Protozoa.
• Everyone’s microbiome is unique. No two people have the same microbial cells — even twins are different.
For a microbe to be called a probiotic, it must have several characteristics. These include being able to:
• Be isolated from a human.
• Survive in your intestine after ingestion (being eaten).
• Have a proven benefit to you.
• Be safely consumed.
Where do beneficial probiotics (microbes) live in my body?
Though the most common place linked to beneficial microbes is your gut (mostly large intestines), you have several locations in and on your body that host good microbes. These locations are in contact with the “outside world” and include you’re:
• Gut.
• Mouth.
• Vagina.
• Urinary tract.
• Skin.
• Lungs.

19. In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements
1. The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform.
2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform.
3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
• Covishield is a Serum Institute of India’s version of the Oxford-AstraZeneca vaccine.
• While the Pfizer and Moderna vaccines use the messenger RNA or mRNA platform, AstraZeneca’s is developed using a 50-year-old platform based on the chimpanzee adenovirus.
• Sputnik V is the world’s first registered vaccine based on a well-studied human adenovirus vector platform.
• Covaxin is an inactivated vaccine. This destroys the pathogen’s ability to replicate, but keeps it intact so that the immune system can still recognise it and produce an immune response.

20. If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth?
1. GPS and navigation systems could fail.
2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions.
3. Power grids could be damaged.
4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.
5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.
6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over Polar Regions could be interrupted.
Select the correct answer using the code given below ;
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(b) 2, 3, 6, 6 and 7 only
(c) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Coronal mass ejection, or CME, strikes Earth’s atmosphere, it causes a temporary disturbance of the Earth’s magnetic field. The storm on the sun causes a type of storm on the Earth, known as a geomagnetic storm.
The most powerful solar storms send coronal mass ejections (CMEs), containing charged particles, into space. If Earth happens to be in the path of a CME, the charged particles can slam into our atmosphere, disrupt satellites in orbit and even cause them to fail, and bathe high-flying airplanes with radiation. They can disrupt telecommunications and navigation systems. They have the potential to affect power grids, and have been known to black out entire cities, even entire regions.

21. Consider the following statements:
1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Court Act, 1971 was passed.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1. 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Contempt of Court act 1952

22. With reference to India, consider the following statements. :
1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: B

23. Consider the following statements:
1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
2 When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a)1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Prior approval of President for constitutional amendment is not required

24. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct’?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(e) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: There is no classification of Ministers in the constitution

25. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?
1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
3. To impeach the President of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only,
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Declaration of Emergency needs ratification by both the houses of the parliament. Also impeachment of president needs the approval from both the houses of parliament

26. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements
1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House
2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(e) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
A nominated members can join any political party but need to resign within 6months of such joining

27. Consider the following statements:
1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(e) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Art 76 deals only with Attorney general and not Solicitor general and also mentions that Attorney general is allowed to participate in parliament proceedings

28. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:
1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organization unless it is entrusted with a public duty
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company
3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(la) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Mandamus is issued on Government Company or any private organisation that deals with govt organisations

29. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following Statements:
1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately
3. It has seamless portability across the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: B/D

30. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Name is proposed by prime minister or minister of parliamentary affairs. Speaker will not move the motion

31. “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following?
(a) Asian Development Bank
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative
(d) World Bank
Correct Answer: B
Context: in news because of Sri-Lanka and Pakistan’s financial crisis as they are exploring the option of taking IMF assistance.

Explanation:
Rapid financing instrument: The RFI provides rapid and low-access financial assistance to member countries facing an urgent balance of payments (BoP) need, without the need to have a full-fledged program in place. It can provide support to meet a broad range of urgent needs, including those arising from commodity price shocks, natural disasters, conflict and post-conflict situations, and emergencies resulting from fragility. As a single, flexible mechanism with a broad coverage, the RFI replaced the IMF’s previous policy that covered Emergency Natural Disaster Assistance (ENDA) and Emergency Post-Conflict Assistance (EPCA).
Rapid credit facility: The Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) provides rapid concessional financial assistance to low-income countries (LICs) facing an urgent balance of payments (BoP) need with no ex-post conditionality where a full-fledged economic program is neither necessary nor feasible. The RCF was created under the Poverty Reduction and Growth Trust (PRGT) as part of a broader reform to make the Fund’s financial support more flexible and better tailored to the diverse needs of LICs, including in times of crisis. There are three windows under RCF: (i) a “regular window” for urgent BoP needs caused by wide range of sources including domestic instability, emergencies and fragility; (ii) an “exogenous shock window” for urgent BoP needs caused by a sudden, exogenous shock; and (iii) a “large natural disaster window” for urgent BoP needs arising from natural disasters where damage is assessed to be equivalent to or exceed 20 percent of the member’s GDP. Access under the RCF is subject to annual and cumulative limits, with higher access limits applying for the large natural disaster window. For higher income countries that are non-PRGT eligible, a similar Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) is available.

32. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements
1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee.
2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.
3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.
Which of the above statements are correct”
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The nominal effective exchange rate (NEER) is an unadjusted weighted average rate at which one country’s currency exchanges for a basket of multiple foreign currencies. The nominal exchange rate is the amount of domestic currency needed to purchase foreign currency.
If a domestic currency increases against a basket of other currencies inside a floating exchange rate regime, NEER is said to appreciate. If the domestic currency falls against the basket, the NEER depreciates.
The NEER only describes relative value; it cannot definitively show whether a currency is strong or gaining strength in real terms. It only describes whether a currency is weak or strong, or weakening or strengthening, compared to foreign currencies
REER is the real effective exchange rate (a measure of the value of a currency against a weighted average of several foreign currencies) divided by a price deflator or index of costs.
An increasing REER indicates that a country is losing its competitive edge.

33. With reference to the Indian economy consider the following Statements:
1. If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.
2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating , RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.
3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall. that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is wrong: RBI buys govt. securities to infuse more liquidity (money) into the economy and stabilise money supply. It sells govt. securities to do the reverse i.e., to suck out excess liquidity from the market. In case of high inflation, there is already excess liquidity in the system leading to decreased money value. In this case, RBI tries to balance the demand and supply of money by sucking out this excess money through selling govt. securities not buy buying them.
Statement 2 is correct: here also, same demand and supply principle applies. Rupee depreciates in the case where there is more rupee and less dollars. Its like buying a scarce product. It is valued highly because there is limited amount of it in the market than demanded. In the same way as demand for dollars increase for purposed like import payments, tourists demand, etc., its value increases and rupee value decreases. To balance this demand and availability of dollars in the economy, RBI pumps more dollars into the economy through selling of dollars in the market.
Statement 3 is correct: investors, especially FPI investors, look for profit for their investment. However, they also prefer stable economy and reduced exchange rate risks which are available only in developed countries. But, when the interest rates in developed countries are too less, and when developing countries offer high interest rates (usually this is the case) these investors come to developing countries. In this case, there will be increases money in the Indian economy leading to inflation, reduced price stability. To suck out this excess liquidity RBI buys dollars from the economy.

34. With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements:
1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
2. It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(1) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Common Framework for debt treatment beyond the DSSI (Common Framework) is an initiative endorsed by the G20, together with the Paris Club, last November to support, in a structural manner, Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt

35. With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)?
1. Government can reduce the coupon on its borrowing by way of IIBs
2. IIBs provide protection to the investors front uncertainty regarding inflation.
3. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: A

36. With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places.
2. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is wrong and statement 2 is correct.
Inventory based model of e-commerce- Inventory based model of e-commerce means an e-commerce activity where inventory of goods and services is owned by e-commerce entity and is sold to the consumers directly. Marketplace based model of e-commerce- Marketplace based model of e-commerce means providing of an information technology platform by an e-commerce entity on a digital & electronic network to act as a facilitator between buyer and seller.

37. Which of the following activities constitute real sector in the economy?
1. Farmers harvesting their crops
2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics
3. A commercial bank lending money to a trading company
4. A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Real sector refers to real economic transactions of an economy, consists of enterprises (nonfinancial corporations), households and non-profit institutions serving households.

38. Which one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India?
(a) An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprises and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of Investment
(b) A foreign company investing in stadia and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment
(c) An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India
(d) A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Indirect transfers refer to situations where when foreign entities own shares or assets in India, the shares of such foreign entities are transferred instead of a direct transfer of the underlying assets in India.

39. With reference to the expenditure made by an organization or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure.
2. Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Equity Financing Comes under capital expenditure.

40. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following settlements:
1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.
2. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Both the statements are right.
Budget and NCERT

41. Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?
a) Cotton
(b) Rice
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Wheat
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Intermittently flooded rice farms can emit 45 times more nitrous oxide as compared to the maximum from continuously flooded farms that predominantly emit methane. This raises the prospect that rice farming across the world could be responsible for up to twice the level of climate impact relative to what was previously estimated.

42. “System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practiced, results in:
1. Reduced seed requirement
2. Reduced methane production
3. Reduced electricity consumption
Select the correct answer using the code given below .
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: D

43. Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert. ?
(a) Lake Victoria
(b) Lake Faguibine
(c) Lake Oguta
(d) Lake Volta
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Lake Faguibine – a drop in precipitation and increasingly disastrous periods of drought steadily dried the lake. By the late 1990s, the traditional livelihoods of fishing, agriculture, and livestock herding became impractical. Climate change transforms Lake Faguibine into desert

44. Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers ?
(a) Cauvery
(b) Manjira
(c) Pennar
(d) Tungabhadra
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Gandikota is a small village in the Kadapa district of Andhra Pradesh. The village is majorly known for housing the spectacular gorge (famously adjudged as the Grand Canyon of India) created by the waters of the famous river Pennar.

45. Consider the following pairs:
Peak Mountain.
1. Namcha Barwa – Garhwal Himalays
2. Nandn Devi – Kumaon Himalays
3. Nokrek – Sikkim Hmalays
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Namcha Barwa: Eastern Himalays bordering Arunachal Pradesh
Nanda Devi: Kumaon Himalaya
Nokrek: Garo Hills of Meghalaya

46. The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions?
(a) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores
(b) Region along North African shore, stretching from Egypt to Morocco
(c) Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa
(d) The entire coastal areas of Mediterranean Sea
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The Levant is an approximate historical geographical term referring to a large area in the Eastern Mediterranean region of Western Asia. The Levant region comprises Lebanon, Syria, Iraq, Palestine, and Jordan.

47. Consider the following countries:
1. Azerbaijan
2. Kyrgyzstan
3. Tajikistan
4. Turkmenistan
5. Uzbekistan
Which of the above have borders with Which of the above Afghanistan?
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Afghanistan is bounded to the east and south by Pakistan and India (PoK), to the west by Iran, and to the north by the Central Asian states of Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, and Tajikistan.

48. With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Monazite is a source of rare earths.
2. Monazite contains thorium.
3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India
4. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: D/B

49. In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the :
(a) First half of the month of June
(b) Second half of the month of June
(c) First half of the month of July
(d) Second half of the month of July.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
June 21st

50. Consider the following pairs :
Wetland / Lake Locanon
1. Hokera Wetland — Punjab
2. Rentdca Wetland — Himachal Pradesh
3. Rudrasagar Lake — Tripura
4. Sasthamkotta — Tamil Nadu Lake
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Hokera Wetland — Kashmir
Rentdca Wetland — Himachal Pradesh
Rudrasagar Lake — Tripura
Sasthamkotta — Kerala

51. Consider the following pair :
Site of Ashoka’s major rock edicts Location in the State of
1. Dhauli Odisha
2. Erragudi Andhra Pradesh
3. Jaugada Madhya Pradesh
4. Kalsi Karnataka
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Dhauli Odisha
Erragudi Andhra Pradesh
Jaugada Odisha
Kalsi Uttarakand

52. Consider the following pairs :
King Dynasty
I. Nannuka — Chandela
2. Jayshakti — Paramara
3. Nagabhata II — Gurjara-Pratihara
4. Bhoja — Rashtrakuta
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d)All four pa.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Nannuka — Chandela
Jayshakti — Chandela
Nagabhata II — Gurjara-Pratihara
Bhoja — Paramara

53. Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct?
(a) Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture
(b) The Social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets
(c) Sangarn poems have no reference to warrior ethic
(d) Sangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Explanation sangam literature also discussed about Varna system

54. “Yogavasistha” was translated into Persian by Nlitamuddin Pannipati during the reign of
(a) Akbar
(b) Humayan
(c) Shahjahan
(d) Aurangzeb
Correct Answer: A

55. The world’s second tallest statue in sitting pose of Ramajuna was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India at Hyderabad recently. Which one of the following statements. correctly represents. the teachings of Ramanuja?
(a) The best means of salvation was devotion
(b) Vedas are eternal, self-existent and wholly authoritative.
(c) Logical arguments were essential means for the highest bliss.
(d) Salvation was to be obtained through meditation.
Correct Answer: A

56. The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple at Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple?
1. Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrine
2. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni
3. Pran Pratistha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) I and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) I and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: A

57. Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body
(a) They Protect the body from environmental allergens
(b) They alleviate the body’s pain and inflamation
(c) They act as immunosuppresaants in the body.
(d) They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cells. They play a critical role in keeping us healthy. Without them, we can’t survive.
T cells protect us from infection. In our daily lives, we’re constantly exposed to pathogens, such as bacteria, viruses and fungi. Without T lymphocytes, also called T cells, every exposure could be life-threatening. T cells can wipe out infected or cancerous cells. They also direct the immune response by helping B lymphocytes to eliminate invading pathogens.
B cells create antibodies. B lymphocytes, also called B cells, create a type of protein called an antibody. These antibodies bind to pathogens or to foreign substances, such as toxins, to neutralize them. For example, an antibody can bind to a virus, which prevents it from entering a normal cell and causing infection. B cells can also recruit other cells to help destroy an infected cell.

58. Consider the following statements:
1. Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature.
2. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics.
3. Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Naturally occurring nanoparticles can be found in volcanic ash, ocean spray, fine sand and dust, and even biological matter (e.g. viruses). In the cosmetics industry, mineral nanoparticles – such as titanium oxide – are used in sunscreen, due to the poor stability that conventional chemical UV protection offers in the long-term. Just as the bulk material would, titanium oxide nanoparticles are able to provide improved UV protection while also having the added advantage of removing the cosmetically unappealing whitening associated with sunscreen in their nano-form. The effects of inhaled nanoparticles in the body may include lung inflammation and heart problems. Studies in humans show that breathing in diesel soot causes a general inflammatory response and alters the system that regulates the involuntary functions in the cardiovascular system, such as control of heart rate.
The pulmonary injury and inflammation resulting from the inhalation of nanosize urban particulate matter appears to be due to the oxidative stress that these particles cause in the cells

59. Consider the following statements:
DNA Barcoding can be a tool to :
1. assess the age of a plant or animal
2. distinguish among species that look alike
3. identify undesirable animal or plant material in processed foods.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
DNA barcoding represents an essential tool to evaluate the quality of food products. The purpose is to guarantee food traceability, to minimize food piracy, and to valuate local and typical agro-food production. Another purpose is to safeguard public health; for example, metabarcoding offers the possibility to identify groupers causing Ciguatera fish poisoning from meal remnants, or to separate poisonous mushrooms from edible ones. Applications of DNA barcoding include identification of new species, safety assessment of food, identification and assessment of cryptic species, detection of alien species, identification of endangered and threatened species, linking egg and larval stages to adult species, securing intellectual property rights for bioresources, framing global management plans for conservation strategies and elucidate feeding niches. DNA barcode markers can be applied to address basic questions in systematics, ecology, evolutionary biology and conservation, including community assembly, species interaction networks, taxonomic discovery, and assessing priority areas for environmental protection.

60. Consider the following:
1. Carbon monoxide
2. Nitrogen oxide
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide
Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Acid rain results when sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOX) are emitted into the atmosphere and transported by wind and air currents. The SO2 and NOX react with water, oxygen and other chemicals to form sulfuric and nitric acids. These then mix with water and other materials before falling to the ground

61. Consider the following statements:
1. High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth.
2. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause warming effect.
Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Low, thick clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth.
High, thin clouds primarily transmit incoming solar radiation; at the same time, they trap some of the outgoing infrared radiation emitted by the Earth and radiate it back downward, thereby warming the surface of the Earth.

62. Consider the following statements :
1. Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in north-western Kenya.
2. Some people who fled from South Sudan civil war live in Bidibidi.
3. Some people who fled from civil war in Somalia live in Dadaab refugee complex in Kenya.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Bidibidi Refugee Settlement is a refugee camp in northwestern Uganda hosting over 270,000 South Sudanese refugees fleeing the ongoing civil war.
Dadaab is a refugee camp in Kenya run by the UN High Commissioner for Refugees hosting Somali refugees at the complex.

63. Consider the following countries:
1. Armenia
2. Azerbaijan
3. Croatia
4. Romania
5. Uzbekistan
Which of the above are members of the Organisation of Turkic States?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 5
(d) 3, 4 and 5

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Turkic countries: Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Turkey and Uzbekistan.

64. Consider the following statements:
1. Gujarat has the largest solar park in India
2. Kerala has a fully solar powered International Airport.
3. Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Bhadla Solar Park became the largest solar park in 2020 with a capacity of 2,245 MW in Rajasthan. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) has successfully commissioned India’s largest Floating Solar PV plant. Located at NTPC Simhadri in Andhra Pradesh, the 25 MW floating SPV project covers an area of 100 acres.

65. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements:
1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 natural miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention.
2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.
3. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 natural miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
According to UNCLOS, the territorial sea can be defined as the area which extends up to 12 nautical miles from the baseline of a country’s coastal state.
UNCLOS enshrines the concept of innocent passage through a coastal state’s territorial sea. Also, Article 17 of UNCLOS provides for innocent passage to the ships of all the states, whether coastal or land locked through territorial sea.
EEZ stretches from the outer limit of the territorial sea (12 nautical miles from the baseline) out to 200 nautical miles from the baseline.

66. Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands sometimes mentioned in the news?
(a) It is generally believed that they are artificial islands made by a country around South China Sea
(b) China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea
(c) A permanent American military base has been set up there to help Taiwan to increase its defence capabilities.
(d) Though International Court of Justice declared them as no man’s land, some South-East Asian countries claim them
Correct Answer: B

67. Consider the following pairs:
Country Important reason for being in the news recently
1. Chad — Setting up of permanent military base by China
2. Guinea – Suspension of Constitution and Government by military
3. Lebanon – Severe and prolonged economic depresseion
4. Tunisia – Suspension of Parliament by President
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two Pair
(c) Only three Pair
(d) All four pairs
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: china set its military base in Djibouti not Chad

68. Consider the following pairs:
Region often mentioned in the news Country
1. Anatolia — Turkey
2. Amhara — Ethiopia
3. Cabo Delgado — Spain
4. Catalonia — Italy
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) only one pair
(b) only two pairs
(c) only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Catalonia – spain
cabo delgado insurgency – Mozambique
Anatolia — Turkey
Amhara — Ethiopia
Cabo Delgado — Mozambique
Catalonia — Spain

69. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements:
1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government
2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.
3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
According to Wildlife protection act 1972 , the Chief Wild Life Warden may, if he is satisfied that any wild animal specified in Schedule I has become dangerous to human life or is so disabled or diseased as to be beyond recovery, by order in writing and stating the reasons therefor, permit any person to hunt such animal or cause such animal to be hunted provided that no wild animal shall be ordered to be killed unless the Chief Wild Life Warden is satisfied that such animal cannot be captured, transquilised or translocated: Provided further that no such captured animal shall be kept in captivity unless the Chief Wild Life Warden is satisfied that such animal cannot be rehabilitated in the wild .

70. Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi?
(a) Ant
(b) Cockroach
(c) Crab
(d) Spider
Correct Answer: A

71. Consider the following statements:
1. Tight monetary policy of US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight.
2. Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs)
3. Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBs.
Which of the statements invert above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The statement 3 is incorrect, so the correct answer is A

72. Consider the following States:
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Kerala,
3. Himachal Pradesh ,
4. Tripura
How many of the above are generally known as tea-Producing State?
(a) Only one State
(b) Only two States
(c) Only three States
(d) All four States
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
hp-rank 8, tripura-rank 6, kerla-rank4. AP is not among the top 10

73. Consider the following statements:
1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India
2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company.
3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The credit rating agencies are regulated by SEBI

74. With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct?
1. The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB.
2. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks.
3. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is wrong and also previous year question

75. With reference to Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements:
1. As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest.
2. The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Both the options are correct.
A convertible bond is a type of debt security that provides an investor with a right or an obligation to exchange the bond for a predetermined number of shares in the issuing company at certain times of a bond’s lifetime. It is a hybrid security that possesses features of both debt and equity.

76. Consider the following
1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
2. Missile Technology Control Regime
3. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
India is a member of which of the above
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: India is member of all the 3 organisations
77. Consider the following statements:
1. Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing economies in the world in the recent years.
2. Viethamia is led by a multi-party Political system.
3. Vietnam, economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports
4. For a long time Vietnam’s low labour costs and stable exchange rates have attracted global manufacturers.
5. Vietnam has the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region.
Which of the statements given above arc correct
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 3 and 5
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
• Vietnam is likely the top-performing Asian economy in 2020 — a feat that was achieved without a single quarter of economic contraction.
• Government estimates showed the Vietnamese economy growing 2.9% last year from a year ago, better than China’s forecast-beating 2.3% growth during the same period.
• Manufacturing was widely credited for Vietnam’s outperformance, with production growing on the back of steady export demand.
• Vietnam is a socialist republic with a one-party system led by the Communist Party of Vietnam (CPV).

78. In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation?
(a) Department of Consumer Affairs
(b) Expenditure Management Commission
(c) Financial Stability and Development Council
(d) Reserve Bank of India
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: RBI is responsible for managing inflation.

79. With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements:
1. They enable the digital representation of physical assets.
2. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain
3. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions.
Which of the statements given above are correct
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Equivalency is wrong

80. Consider the following pairs :
Reservoirs States
1. Ghataprabha — Telangana
2. Gandhi Sagar — Madhya Pradesh
3. Indira Sagar — Andhra Pradesh
4. Maithon — Chhattisgarh
How many pairs given above are not correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Ghataprabha – Karnataka
Maithon – Jharkhand
Indira sagar – MP
Gandhi Sagar- MP

81. In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into “Reserved” and ‘Transferred” subjects. Which of the following were treated as “Reserved” subjects ?
1. Administration of Justice
2. Local Self- Government
3. Land Revenue
4. Police
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2. 3 and 4
(c) 1,3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Law and order, finance, land revenue, police. Local govt is in transferal subject
Government of India Act, 1919- subjects of provincial Government were divided into two lists:
Introduction of Dyarchy
Subjects were divided into two lists: ‘reserved’ which included subjects such as law and order, finance, land revenue, irrigation, etc., and ‘transferred’ subjects such as education, health, local government, industry, agriculture, excise, etc.
Hence :1,3 and 4 right answers

82.In medieval India, the term “Fanam” referred to :
(a) Clothing
(b) Coins
(c) Ornaments
(d) Weapons
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Vijayanagara Empire Coins the Vijayanagara Empire (14th–17th century) issued large quantities of gold coins
Gold fanams – fractional units

83. Consider the following freedom fighters:
1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh
2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee
3. Rash Behari Bose
Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The Ghadar Party, initially named the Pacific Coast Hindustan Association was formed in was formed on 15 July 1913 in the United States under the leadership of Lala Har Dayal
Key participants in the Ghadar Movement included Bhai Parmanand, , Har Dayal, Rashbehari Bose
Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee a member of the Anushilan Samiti. He was one of the founder members of Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) (in 1924) that later became Hindustan Socialist Republican Association
Barindra Kumar Ghosh was one of the founding members of Jugantar, Bengali weekly, a revolutionary outfit in Bengal. Barindra Ghosh was a younger brother of Sri Aurobindo.

84. With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements :
1. The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States
2. Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
In March 1942, a mission headed by Stafford Cripps was sent to India with constitutional proposals to seek Indian support for the war.
Main Proposals
1.After the end of the war, a constituent assembly would be convened to frame a new constitution.
Members of this assembly would be partly elected by the provincial assemblies through proportional representation and partly nominated by the princes.
Hence option 1 is wrong
2. The British government would accept the new constitution subject to two conditions: (i) any province not willing to join the Union could have a separate constitution and form a separate Union, and (ii) the new constitution making body and the British government would negotiate a treaty to effect the transfer of power and to safeguard racial and religious minorities.
Hence option 2 is right

85. With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts :
1. Nettipakarana
2. Parishishtaparvan
3. Avadanashataka
4. Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana
Which of the above are Jaina texts ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
The Nettipakaraṇa is a mythological Buddhist scripture, sometimes included in the Khuddaka Nikaya of Theravada Buddhism’s Pali Canon
The Avadānaśataka is an anthology in Sanskrit of one hundred Buddhist legends, approximately dating to the same time as the Ashokavadana.
The Parishishtaparvan is a 12th-century Sanskrit mahakavya by Hemachandra which details the histories of the earliest Jain teachers.
Trishashthilkshana Mahapurana is a major Jain text[1] composed largely by Acharya Jinasena during the rule of Rashtrakuta ruler Amoghavarsha and completed by his pupil Gunabhadra in the 9th century CE.

86. With reference to Indian history, consider the following pairs :
Historial person Known as
1. Aryadeva — Jainn scholar
2. Dignaga — Buddhist scholar
3. Nathamuni — Vaishnava scholar
How many pairs given above are correctly matched ?
(a) None of the pairs
(b) Only one pair
(c) Only two pairs
(d) All three pairs
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Dignāga was an Indian Buddhist scholar and one of the Buddhist founders of Indian logic (hetu vidyā). Dignāga’s work laid the groundwork for the development of deductive logic in India and created the first system of Buddhist logic and epistemology (Pramana).
Āryadeva was a Mahayana Buddhist monk, a disciple of Nagarjuna and a Madhyamaka philosopher. Most sources agree that he was from “Siṃhala”, which some scholars identify with Sri Lanka.[1] After Nagarjuna, he is considered to be the next most important figure of the Indian Madhyamaka school
Sri Ranganathamuni, was a Vaishnava theologian who collected and compiled the Nalayira Divya Prabandham. Considered the first of Sri Vaishnava āchāryās, Nathamuni is also the author of Yogarahasya, and Nyāyatattva.

87. With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:
1. The first Mongol invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji.
2. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol assault marched up la Delhi and besieged the city.
3. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of north-west of his kingdom to Mongols.
Which of the statements given above Ware correct
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Even from Balban time Indian is facing strong invasion of Mongols
Hence option 1 is wrong
During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khilji,one Mongol assault marches upto Delhi and besieged the city .

88. With reference to Indian history, who of the following were known as “Kulah-Daran”?
(a) Arab merchants
(b) Qalandars
(c) Persian calligraphists
(d) Sayyids
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The sayyids claimed descent from the prophet through his daughter Fatima . They commanded special respect in Muslim society The sayyids put on a pointed cap (kulah ) and they were known as Kulah-Daran
The religious class of Islam was composed of a number of important groups , namely, the theologians , the ascetics, the sayyids, the Pirs , and their descendants . Of these , the most important were the theologians , whose functions and position in the state have been dealt with previously . The theologians who occupied the judicial and religious offices in kingdom were collectively known as Dastar-bandan or turban wearers , because they wore their official head-dress , the turban .The Sayyids were recognised by their distinctive head-dress of a pointed cap or kulah and were known as Kulah-Daran or cap wearers

89. With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements :
1. The Dutch established their factories/warehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers.
2. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate.
3 The English East India Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara empire.
Which of the statement. given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The Gajapati Empire was an empire established by Emperor Kapilendra Deva which originated in the region of Trikalinga (most of present-day Odisha and Northern coastal Andhra) from 1434 to 1541 CE and succeeded the reign of the Eastern Gangas.
Dutch founded their first factory in Masulipatnam (in Andhra) in 1605.
Hence option 1 is wrong
1510: Alfonso Albuquerque, the Portuguese governor, captures Goa from Bijapur.
Hence option 2 is right
A member of the Masulipatnam council, the British merchant Francis Day in 1639 received from the ruler of Chandragiri (associated with Vijayanagara Empire) permission to build a fortified factory at Madras which later became the Fort St. George and replaced Masulipatnam as the headquarters of the English settlements in south India.
Hence option 3 is right

90. According to Kautilya’s Arthashastra, which of the following are correct?
1. A person could be a slave as a result of a judicial punishment
2. If a female slave bore her master a son, she was legally free.
3. If a son born to a female slave was fathered by her master, the son was entitled to the legal status of the master’s son. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A Legal status is not possible

91. In India, which one of the following complies information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and pay-offs in factories employing workers?
(a) Central Statistics Offie
(b) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
(c) Labour Bureau
(d) National Technical Manpower Information System
Correct Answer: C

92. In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)?
1. CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government India.
2. It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks.
3. It hers any objection to the Government’s notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas.
4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: CCO also acts as the applet authority for disputes relating to the coal producing companies
CCO cannot object to government notifications

93. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?
(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
(b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.
(c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
(d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
It prevents transferring of land of tribal people to non-tribal people

94. Consider the following statements:
1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization
2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
NIUA will only coordinate but it is not an apex body.
WHO is not right.

95. Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
(a) Central Water Commission
(b) Central Ground Water Board
(c) Central Ground Water Authority
(d) Natural Water Development Agency
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Central Ground water Authority control development and management of ground water resources in the country.
The Authority has been conferred with the following powers:
(i) Exercise of powers under section 5 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 for issuing directions and taking such measures in respect of all the matters referred to in sub-section(2) of section 3 of the said Act. To regulate and control, management and development of ground water in the country and to issue necessary regulatory directions for the purpose.
(iv) Exercise of powers under section 4 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 for the appointment of officers.

96. With reference to the ‘United Nations Credentials Committee’, consider the following statements:
1. It is a committee set up by the UN security Council and works under its supervision.
2. It traditionally meets in March, June and September every year
3. It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
• The United Nations Credentials Committee is a committee of the United Nations General Assembly and is appointed at the beginning of each regular session of the General Assembly.
• UNGA credentials committee meets before annual section of general assembly
• The Committee is mandated to examine the credentials of representatives of Member States and to report to the General Assembly thereon

97. Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’ ?
(a) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar writers.
(b) It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region.
(c) It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientist’ undertake research studies in the North Pole and South Pole.
(d) It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council.
Correct Answer: A

98. With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the following statements :
1. The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to the non-member States.
2. Inter-governmental orgamsation can seek observer status in the UN General Assembly.
3. Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly can maintain missions at the UN headquarters.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
• The United Nations General Assembly is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations (UN), serving as the main deliberative, policymaking, and representative organ of the UN.
• The United Nations General Assembly can grant observer status to international organizations, entities, and non-member states, to enable them to participate in the work of the United Nations General Assembly, though with limitations.
• Many intergovernmental organizations and a few other entities (non-governmental organizations and others with various degrees of statehood or sovereignty), are invited to become observers at the General Assembly. Some of them maintain a permanent office in the United Nations headquarters in New York City, while others do not; however, this is the choice of the organization and does not imply differences in their status.
• Permanent Observers may participate in the sessions and workings of the General Assembly and maintain missions at the UN Headquarters.

99. With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements :
I. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
2. It a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru
4. The Tea Board had overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.
Which of the statements. given above are correct ?
(n) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Tea Board — Ministry of Commerce.
Head Quarters – Kolkata

100. Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”?
(a) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound
(b) Non-inclusion of ecological/ environmental costs in the Annual Financial Settlements of a country
(c) Ignoring the disastrous ecological consequences while undertaking infrastructure development
(d) Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government Project/Prograrnme
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Greenwashing is the practice of making an unsubstantiated or misleading claim about the environmental benefits of a product, service, and technology or company practice. Greenwashing can make a company appear to be more environmentally friendly than it really is.